Why "pregnant" doesn't cut it...

(Tim, w/thanks to Dave C.) Doug Moo has done a good recent commentary on Romans and is a faculty member at evangelicalism's Harvard, Wheaton College. So why are my concerns unabated when he gives us assurances all will be well with the 2011 updated NIV his Biblica Committee on Bible Translation is producing?

Defending the integrity of the sort of changes he and his people will be making, yesterday Fox News reported Moo saying:

Most changes will have nothing to do with gender inclusivity, Moo said. And the TNIV provides a glimpse of likely changes: In the '84 NIV, Mary is "with child," but in the TNIV she is "pregnant."

Why am I not reassured?

We're halfway to a billion babies slaughtered in their mother's wombs in the past few decades, and our best and brightest...

are changing Scripture's statement of Mary carrying Jesus in her womb from Mary being "with child" to Mary being "pregnant?"

Surely they aren't pro-abortion, so is it simply a question of being daft?

The Greek is "en gastri echousa" and has been translated "with child" for centuries, now. A barbarically literal rendering of it from Greek to English would be "holding in womb."

The KJV, NASB, NKJV, ESV--even the radically sex-neutered NRSV--all render it "with child."

But now, the unborn child disappears and we're left with his mother's condition. Does anyone think such insensitivity to the meaning-change is purely accidental in our day of unborn child slaughter in the fifty-millions each year? In some ways, the fact that this change is trotted out as an example of the sort of work they're undertaking, along with their expectation that no one will object, is more sobering than the change itself.

To be clear: I'm not saying this translation is wrong in the same way taking the Hebrew 'adam' to the English 'human beings' or the Greek 'adelphoi' to the English 'siblings' are wrong.

But completely lacking pastoral sensitivity and wisdom?

Yes.

No Christian in his right mind wants to facilitate the denial of the personhood of unborn children, today.

The Blessed Virgin Mary was not pregnant. She was holding Jesus in her womb.


Comments

Related to the feminization of discourse, it seems to be changes of this ilk (marvelous word, no?) represent the "uglification" of language.

Kamilla

> the "uglification" of language.

Fetus -- now there's another ugly word for you.

Forbid not the results of pregnancy for such is the Kingdom of God?

This level of linguistic decay cannot be attributed merely to the malignancy of modernity. To refer to the Blessed Virgin as pregnant constitutes sacraliege.

Well said. I've driven my wife's ob-gyns nuts by referring to the uterus as the "womb" for this very reason. Clinical is correct in a way, but gosh, can't we use a term with some warmth & humanity?

Tim,

I agree with you here. But, isn't this a "dynamic equivalence" problem --in short, a problem with the whole translation theory behind the NIV itself? Thus, we can substitute equivalent terms and phrases if it makes it more understandable, etc.

I hate dynamic equivalence. True, every translation adds words --a necessary thing in getting from Greek to English. The KJV and NAS indicate added words --I wish the ESV did! The NIV adds and completely changes words and phrases, which is a problem with the whole translation.

It seems to me the updates just continue in this Scripture-distorting tradition.

"The Blessed Virgin Mary was not pregnant." What? Of course she was pregnant.

Two thoughts: 1) As Ken mentioned above, this is simply the next step in dynamic equivalence. On that theory of translation, what matters is conveying the appropriate concept in contemporary language. And English has for years called pregnant women, well, 'pregnant' and not 'with child.' It is an archaic phrase, and DE seeks to avoid archaisms.

2) I don't see how this helps abortionists or hurts the pro-life cause. By using the exact same language to describe Mary's condition that we use to describe the condition of a modern woman, aren't we telling the modern woman that she is in the same privileged class ('mother') as the mother of our Lord? And it highlights the horrible implication of the modern doctrine -- if pregnant women can kill their babies, and Mary was a pregnant woman . . .

None of this means I agree with what Zondervan is doing; aesthetically, 'pregnant' doesn't seem to fit the tone of the text (and if Beauty goes along with Truth and Goodness, aesthetic judgments ought to carry serious weight).

>Of course she was pregnant.

Dogs are often pregnant. They are never with child.

I don't think the problem is simply the use of the word "pregnant". It's a perfectly good and acurate word - though it undeniably lacks the poetry (or, as Bike Bubba said, warmth and humanity) of being "with child".

I think Tim's right to point to this example. Precisely *what* is Mary pregnant with? If with child, why not say that? Did *anyone* who read the former translation *not* understand what it meant? Why the need to change the customary language, even if some view the expression as a bit archaic? This is troubling precisely because using the term "pregnant" makes it clinical, removes the child from immediate view and obscures his presence.

So much easier to "terminate" a pregnancy than rip a baby to shreds in its mothers womb, isn't it? No blood, humanity or even guilt involved in a simple "termination" is there?

Kamilla

Two comments.

First, as a matter of fact, "with child" is a more accurate rendering of the Greek than "pregnant." Unless, of course, we are not seeking to bring the meaning of the words in the original into the receptor language. We can slice and dice the meaning of the Greek original to such a point that it doesn't matter if the mother possessing a man in her guts isn't something we want to communicate, despite the fact that the Holy Spirit chose to communicate it, but then we're not seeking dynamic equivalence, even; but rather, reduction of meaning. More on this later, I hope, from Joshua Congrove.

Second, I said to a Bible publisher two days ago that it would be a wooden dynamic equivalence that, in principle, forswore ever rendering Hebrew and Greek words into English with the goal of instruction by words as well as by concepts. Even if I were sold on dynamic equivalence, I see no reason those of us who still hold to the plenary inspiration of Scripture would seek to communicate concepts and doctrines entirely foreign to our receptor group, but would renounce the use of archaic or entirely new words, themselves, helping our cause.

If we expect our readers to learn new concepts (like Original Sin, for example) through a patching together of common words being used to compose phrases and sentences, there's no reason those new concepts can't be learned, also, by new words which better communicate those concepts (like Original Sin).

If they're going to be introduced to new concepts, why not use new words, also? Can't the learning of new words be part of the learning of new concepts? Propitiation, anyone?

And, of course, that's what the Hebrew 'adam' always used for mankind in the Old Testament actually does. It communicates itself--the word 'adam' being used for the race--that in that one man, Adam, we all died. All of us. Young and old. Man and woman. The human race. Adam. Man.

Every male inclusive inspired by the Holy Spirit (and there are thousands of them in Scripture) teaches the federal headship of Adam. Not Eve, though she sinned first. And not AdamEve, though they both sinned.

Adam. Man. Brother.

See, the problem isn't that archaic or unknown words can't be used to teach archaic or unknown doctrines. It's that we refuse to allow it. And it's my own opinion that we refuse to allow it because all of us have turned away from the evangelical doctrine of Scripture to Neo-Orthodoxy. We not longer believe it's the words and not simply the concepts behind the words that the Holy Spirit inspired. Instead, we believe we know better how to communicate the Holy Spirit's concepts than He does Himself. He needs some help because He couldn't have anticipated how offensive "Jews" rather than "Jewish leaders" would have been in our post-Shoah world. He couln't have foreseen how objectionable--how unhelpful, really--it would be to name the race 'man' would be in our post-feminist world.

So we'll keep the concepts intact (largely), but change the words.

But of course, anyone else noticed how intact we've kept the headship of Adam over Eve? In our churches? In the anchors of our networks' news shows? In our courts? In our squad cars? In our homes? Marriages? Pulpits? Session meetings?

The men who are doing this are wicked. They are destroying the words because they want, or are willing to be complicit in, the destruction of the doctrines.

Truth is, what we're doing with the words themselves gives the lie to our claims of faithfulness to the doctrines behind the words. Today, we don't believe in or teach or preach Adam's federal headship or Original Sin or the imputation of Adam's sin to the race or Eve's deception and weakness.

So who's going to object to the words bearing those doctrines being altered?

We've gotten rid of the doctrines, so now it's time to rid ourselves of the words, also.

Speaking of dynamic equivalence, and making the meaning comprehensible to biblically illiterate moderns -- people aren't "crucified" anymore. How are readers supposed to understand what's going on? Shouldn't that be changed to contemporary language that sounds more natural, the way we speak today?

"but we preach Christ executed, to Jews a stumbling block and to Gentiles foolishness"

Better not give them any ideas...

I'm closing the comments, here, asking y'all to move any continuation over under the more recent post, "Gagging God." Thanks.